Dear Editor:
We just had an election day, a “primary,” and it brings up a question that Americans who love fairness and freedom might find perplexing.
As background, national polling has been conducted to determine what percentages of which political parties identify explicitly with those parties, and what percentage consider themselves independent voters. To identify voting trends, the polls also asked those independents which party they “leaned” towards.
The results were these in 2026: Democrats and Republicans nationally were tied with 27% support each, while Independents were 45%, a far greater number than either major party! Further, asked which way those Independents leaned, the result was 42% for Republicans and 47% for Democrats. That’s a 5% preference among independent voters for Democrats.
So, if I’m an Independent voter, what does that mean? It means I’m not wed to one party or the other; I might want a Democratic candidate for one elected position, while I might want a Republican for a different elected position IN THE SAME ELECTION.
Can I vote this way, voting for CANDIDATES instead of party? No. Not in a primary election in Texas. I have to declare party allegiance up front, and then I will see on my ballot ONLY candidates (and propositions) in that party’s primary. If I declare as a Republican at the polling place, but want to vote for Democrats for some offices (or approve Democratic propositions), the only thing I can then do is NOT vote for ANYONE in those races.
So the question: If I am an Independent voter, far outnumbering either Democrats or Republicans, WHY am I prevented from voting for the candidates of my choice? WHY am I not effectively disenfranchised from voting my conscience in Texas? Does anyone have an answer that makes any sense?
Jeff Harrison
Buffalo, TX
